Bart R, you just said we can derive all of mathematics from Peano’s axioms based upon operations “derived from Set Theory axiomatically.” That makes no sense. If we’re using axioms from set theory, we’re not deriving anything from Peano’s axioms. You could say we’re deriving things from multiple axiom systems, but that’s nothing like what you said (and it isn’t even necessary).
You can make snide implications about me and/or my level of knowledge all you want, but everything I’ve said about math has been exactly correct. The fact that you are inconsistent/incoherent doesn’t make me wrong.